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GMDSS Radio Maintainer's License

Element 9 (GMDSS Maintainer)299 questions

Advanced maintenance and repair of GMDSS equipment including DSC controllers, satellite terminals, RADAR, and emergency communication systems.

Subelement A: VHF-DSC Equipment & Operation

Topic :

10A1

It becomes necessary to construct a temporary VHF marine antenna. What should be the approximate length of the antenna?

10A2

Which of the following best describes a VHF collinear array?

10A3

A masthead antenna with a base loading coil appears shorted to an ohmmeter check. What might this indicate?

10A4

What is the most common type of coax connector used on VHF transceivers?

10A5

What type of coaxial cable would be most appropriate for a long transmission line run?

10A6

What is a disadvantage when using high gain VHF antennas?

1A1

What are the correct VHF Channels and Frequencies for Calling/Distress, DSC and bridge-to-bridge operations?

1A2

What is the frequency separation between Transmit and Receive frequencies on a duplex channel?

1A3

What is the assigned channel spacing for VHF channels?

1A4

What is the allowed frequency tolerance for the DSC carrier frequencies?

1A5

Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 2 ppm — which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 156.800 MHz and 156.525 MHz?

1A6

Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 5 ppm — which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 156.875 MHz and 157.200?

2A1

What is the purpose of the USA-INT switch?

2A2

What may happen if the USA-INT control is left on INT when in U.S. waters?

2A3

What is the purpose of the Dual Watch function?

2A4

What is the proper adjustment of the squelch control for maximum sensitivity?

2A5

Which of the following transmitter power levels are permitted by FCC rules?

2A6

Which of the following controls is not found on a VHF-DSC transceiver?

3A1

Which of the following best describes the “Capture effect?”

3A2

Which of the following may be adjusted in a FM ratio detector for improved signal-to-noise?

3A3

What is the function of a properly adjusted limiter circuit?

3A4

Which of the following are true about SINAD measurements?

3A5

What would be considered a normal sensitivity for 10 db of quieting in a VHF marine receiver?

3A6

What is meant by “full quieting” in a FM VHF receiver?

4A1

What condition may prevent a VHF radio receiver from staying tuned to the desired channel?

4A2

What fault may exist if a VHF radio receiver fails to produce audible output from the speaker and the squelch control has no effect?

4A3

What is indicated if a VHF radio fails to receive nearby stations and a voltmeter connected between the positive side of a radio’s DC line and ground reads zero line voltage? The fuse in the VHF radio also reads zero when checked with an ohmmeter.

4A4

What fault may exist if a VHF radio receiver fails to produce audible output from the speaker and the squelch control has no effect?

4A5

What condition may prevent a VHF radio receiver from receiving a weak signal?

4A6

Which of the following is the best test procedure to isolate the source of distortion in the audio output of a receiver?

5A1

What condition may cause a significant loss in VHF receiver sensitivity?

5A2

Which of the following test procedures may be used to determine a VHF receiver’s minimum discernible signal?

5A3

Which of the following procedures may be used in many U.S. ports as a quick field test to determine if a shipboard VHF receiver is operating properly?

5A4

What ohmmeter reading may indicate a faulty component in a VHF receiver?

5A5

What condition may indicate a VHF receiver fault?

5A6

What condition may cause noisy operation of a VHF receiver?

6A1

What is the maximum allowable deviation of a marine VHF transmitter?

6A2

What is the modulation index?

6A3

How is pre-emphasis used in an FM transceiver?

6A4

A modulation index set to less than 1 to 1 may result in what?

6A5

What is the most common type of emission for shipboard VHF-DSC transceivers?

6A6

How many sidebands does a VHF FM transmitter have?

7A1

What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio is unable to contact nearby stations and an inline wattmeter indicates power outputs of 1 watt (LOW power) mode and 8.5 watts (HIGH power) mode with +12.8 vdc applied to the radio’s DC line?

7A2

Antenna system matching can be analyzed by determining the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR). Which of the following is the best test procedure to measure the SWR of a marine VHF antenna system?

7A3

A mismatched antenna system can degrade marine VHF radio performance. Antenna system matching can be analyzed by determining the Standing Wave Ratio (SWR). Which of the following is the best test procedure to determine the VHF antenna system SWR?

7A4

What may be indicated if a VHF radio operates normally but the transmitter produces nearly zero RF output in the high power mode on all marine channels?

7A5

What condition may indicate voltage controlled oscillator failure in the synthesizer of a VHF transmitter?

7A6

What condition may exist if a VHF radio is operational in receive mode but unable to transmit?

8A1

What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio cannot contact nearby stations on any channel, an inline wattmeter indicates 25 watts output (HIGH power mode), and no modulation is heard when the transmitted signal is monitored with an external receiver?

8A2

What condition may be indicated if a VHF radio cannot contact nearby stations, an inline wattmeter indicates less than 1 watt output (HIGH power mode), and nominal voltage (e.g., 12.8 vdc) is applied to the VHF radio power input line?

8A3

A spectrum analyzer (SPECAN) can be a useful test instrument to troubleshoot a marine VHF radio. Which of the following is the best procedure to evaluate the input/output stages of a marine VHF transmitter?

8A4

Which in-line RF power reading indicates the proper operation of a VHF marine transmitter?

8A5

What condition may cause distortion in the modulator stage of a marine VHF transmitter?

8A6

What terms are used to describe a device used to test the RF power output of a marine VHF transmitter without emitting a signal on the air?

9A1

What is the correct frequency shift and sub-carrier for VHF-DSC?

9A2

What is the correct modulation rate and index of modulation for VHF-DSC?

9A3

How might a DSC radio check be accomplished with a coast station?

9A4

You attempt to program a new MMSI into a VHF radio with an existing MMSI. The radio will not accept the entry. What is the best course of action to correct this problem?

9A5

What is the time diversity reception interval for a VHF-DSC call?

9A6

What might a voltmeter indicate when testing a DSC circuit for an outgoing message data stream?

Subelement B: MF-HF-DSC-SITOR (NBDP) Equip. & Ops

Topic :

11B1

What is the assigned bandwidth and channel spacing for J3E voice transmissions?

11B2

What is the assigned bandwidth and channel spacing for J2B SITOR (NBDP) transmissions?

11B3

What is the allowable frequency tolerance for GMDSS MF-HF transmitters?

11B4

Using a frequency counter with an accuracy of 2 ppm which of the following are within legal tolerance for the frequencies of 2182.0 kHz and 4125.0 kHz? The counter has a display resolution of 1 Hz.

11B5

Which of the following are assigned frequencies for Digital Selective Calling?

11B6

What are the assigned frequencies for VOICE and SITOR (NBDP) follow on communications?

12B1

What is the purpose of the “R.I.T.“ control on a MF/HF transceiver?

12B2

What is the function of the “TUNE” button on a MF/HF transceiver?

12B3

What is the purpose of the “ENTER” function.

12B4

What mode is a MF/HF transceiver operating in when “TLX” displayed?

12B5

Reducing the “RF Gain” control on an MF/HF transceiver has what effect?

12B6

What is the function of an “AGC” button?

13B1

What is the purpose of the BFO?

13B2

If the BFO is turned off what kind of emissions can still be received?

13B3

If you are listening to another vessel’s HF transmission and it sounds garbled what should you do?

13B4

What characteristics are desirable in an AGC circuit for SSB voice reception?

13B5

What is the primary purpose of both a high and a low I.F. system in a HF receiver?

13B6

How does a noise blanker circuit work in a HF receiver?

14B1

The voice is garbled and unreadable on MF/HF SSB channels. What is the most likely cause?

14B2

All signals sound normal on an MF/HF receiver except one that has a very high pitched voice barely readable. What is the most likely cause?

14B3

You are able to hear signals in the voice/SSB mode but not in the SITOR (NBDP) mode. What is the most likely cause?

14B4

The phase locked loop circuit in an MF/HF receiver appears to be faulty. What is the most likely cause?

14B5

You are able to hear signals in the SITOR (NBDP) mode but not in the voice/SSB mode. What is the most likely cause?

14B6

The AGC function of an MF/HF receiver is inoperative. What is the most likely cause?

15B1

The MF/HF receiver fails to suppress the AF output in the absence of a sufficiently strong input signal. What is the most likely cause?

15B2

The MF/HF receiver fails to produce any AF output. An ohmmeter reading is near zero between speaker leads. What is the most likely cause?

15B3

The MF/HF transceiver produces strong AF output but no signals are heard on any frequency. What is the most likely cause?

15B4

The MF/HF transceiver produces strong AF output but no signals are heard on any frequency. What is the most likely cause?

15B5

The MF/HF transceiver fails to produce AF output but the radio is powered on and “TX” is illuminated. What is the most likely cause?

15B6

A received signal on a MF/HF transceiver breaks up rapidly and repeatedly. The signal alternates between mid scale and zero on the “Signal” meter. What is the most likely cause?

16B1

How is a J3E signal generated?

16B2

What would be the most likely power level to use for initial MF-HF communications?

16B3

How is the lower sideband eliminated?

16B4

What is the most common method of generating a SITOR (NBDP) signal on shipboard GMDSS equipment?

16B5

What are the major components of a phase locked loop frequency synthesizer?

16B6

What is the purpose of a phase comparator in a frequency synthesizer?

17B1

An MF-HF transceiver works properly on voice but not SITOR (NBDP). What is the most likely source of the problem?

17B2

Which of the following conditions would indicate the malfunction of a 2182 kHz radiotelephone system?

17B3

Which would be an indication of proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 watt PEP output?

17B4

An MF-HF transceiver is functioning correctly in voice mode/SSB but not in SITOR (NBDP). What is the most likely source of the problem?

17B5

Which of the following conditions would be a symptom of malfunction in a 2182 kHz SSB radiotelephone?

17B6

Which would indicate proper operation of a SSB transmitter rated at 60 Watt PEP output in J3E mode?

18B1

Which of the following conditions indicate the proper operation of a 150 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B ARQ mode?

18B2

Which of the following conditions indicate the proper operation of a 250 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B FEC mode?

18B3

Which of the following conditions could cause very low RF output in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode?

18B4

which of the following troubleshooting methods is not valid for finding the fault in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode?

18B5

Which of the following conditions could cause zero RF output in a MF/HF transmitter operating in the F1B FEC mode?

18B6

Which of the following conditions indicate improper operation of a 150 Watt MF/HF transmitter in the F1B FEC mode?

19B1

What precedes the phasing signal in a DSC distress alert call?

19B2

What type of code is used for DSC transmissions?

19B3

What is the correct frequency shift and sub-carrier for MF-HF-DSC?

19B4

What is the time diversity reception interval for a MF-HF-DSC call?

19B5

A MF/HF Distress priority DSC call may be formatted to include the following:

19B6

What statement is false concerning DSC calls addressed to MMSI 003669999?

20B1

Which of the following statements concerning SITOR (NBDP) communications is true?

20B2

What statement is true regarding the exchange between two stations engaged in SITOR (NBDP) communications?

20B3

Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) ARQ mode:

20B4

Which of the following keystrokes or characters follows most commands in ARQ communications when working an automated Coast Station?

20B5

Which characters are sent by the ship station to indicate a desire to send a message via a direct connection to a shoreside TELEX subscriber?

20B6

What are the characters that are transmitted to terminate a direct TELEX connection in SITOR (NBDP) operations?

21B1

If a vessel is within range of NAVTEX broadcasts and both the Inmarsat-C and the NAVTEX receiver are inoperative the GMDSS operator should:

21B2

The sequence ARQ, FEC, SFEC best corresponds to which of the following sequences?

21B3

Selective FEC communications (SFEC) are employed when:

21B4

Which of the following is true of SITOR (NBDP) Mode B (FEC), in the presence of static crashes.

21B5

If the vessel is beyond range of NAVTEX broadcasts and the Sat-C system fails, the GMDSS operator must:

21B6

If the vessel is experiencing atmospheric interference with NAVTEX broadcasts, especially in the tropics, the GMDSS operator should:

22B1

What is the purpose of the antenna tuner?

22B2

What is the electrical effect of an inductance in series with the antenna?

22B3

What is the electrical effect of a capacitance in series with the antenna?

22B4

Which of the following coaxial cables is suitable for use in GMDSS MF/HF antenna systems?

22B5

A ship’s MF-HF whip antenna breaks off and is carried away in a storm. What would you do to regain operation on MF-HF GMDSS frequencies?

22B6

Which of the following connectors is often used in GMDSS MF/HF antenna systems?

Subelement C: Satellite Systems

Topic :

23C1

What are the frequencies for Inmarsat-C shipboard satellite operation?

23C2

What is an LNA?

23C3

What function does the LNA perform?

23C4

What is the fade margin factor?

23C5

What is signal to noise ratio?

23C6

What is the abbreviation for signal to noise?

24C1

Which of the following actions should be taken to minimize shock hazard of an Inmarsat terminal?

24C2

How do you perform a LOOP BACK test?

24C3

What do EGC messages contain?

24C4

Which of the following is not recommended for Inmarsat-C antenna installations?

24C5

How many NCS’s operate in each Inmarsat ocean region per Inmarsat system?

24C6

What type of services cannot be provided by the Inmarsat-C system?

25C1

The U.S. National Data Center that monitors polling input for each US Flag ship:

25C2

LRIT Long Range Information Tracking data:

25C3

LRIT Long Range Information Tracking:

25C4

When a compulsory equipped IMO ship is not correctly broadcasting LRIT Info what action should be taken?

25C5

What must a LRIT terminal do?

25C6

What satellite system does not support LRIT?

26C1

Which of the following Inmarsat units stores configuration data and contains all user interfaces and LED indicators?

26C2

Which of the following is not a function of an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband IP handset?

26C3

Which of the following best describes Inmarsat BGAN Streaming Data service?

26C4

Which of the following is the best procedure to test the Inmarsat Distress Alarm?

26C5

Which of the following is the correct Fax/Data configuration of a Fleet Broadband terminal?

26C6

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband IP handset?

27C1

What protocol can be used in connecting a PC to the LAN interface of an Inmarsat terminal?

27C2

When is a PIN Unlock Key (PUK) used with an Inmarsat terminal?

27C3

Which of the following is NOT a function of the LAN port on a Fleet Broadband terminal?

27C4

What is the configuration for Thrane & Thrane F250 & F500 facsimile operation?

27C5

What is the configuration Thrane & Thrane F500 for standard voice telephone operation?

27C6

Which of the following best describes a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM)?

28C1

What is the usual arrangement of GPS satellites?

28C2

What is the purpose of the Differential GPS system and how does it work?

28C3

How is the GPS usually interconnected with other bridge equipment?

28C4

Which of the following statements is true?

28C5

Which of the following best describes the GPS satellite signals transmitted?

28C6

What is the minimum number of satellites that must be received to provide the highest accuracy?

29C1

Which of the following best describes the polarization of a satellite signal?

29C2

Which of the following is characteristic of the parabolic dish antenna?

29C3

Which of the following best describes a phased array antenna system?

29C4

Which of the following is characteristic of an Inmarsat-C antenna?

29C5

What is a best practice for installing Inmarsat satellite antennas aboard ship?

29C6

What components does an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband RADOME typically include?

30C1

Which of the following conditions would prevent communications between an Inmarsat-C data port and external data terminal equipment (DTE)?

30C2

How can a LES/RCC (Rescue Coordination Centre) determine if an Inmarsat-C Distress Alert is a TEST transmission?

30C3

What is the meaning of the “ACB” Inmarsat-C Non-Delivery Notification (NDN) failure code?

30C4

What condition can indicate a communication failure between the second receiver (RX2) and the Antenna Control Unit (ACU) in an Inmarsat Fleet 77 terminal?

30C5

Which of the following devices can cause interference to Fleet 77/55 systems?

30C6

What error message may be displayed if a connection to the Inmarsat Mobile Packet Data Service (MPDS) network fails?

31C1

An Inmarsat-C terminal shows a “No Receive Signal” alarm. There is no voltage on the antenna center pin. What is the most likely cause?

31C2

An Inmarsat-C terminal will not “LOG IN”. A test antenna cable with a new ADE attached in view of the satellite allows the terminal to “LOG IN”. What steps would you take?

31C3

An Inmarsat-C terminal will not “LOG IN” and shows an “Antenna not connected” alarm. What action would you take?

31C4

The antenna goes past the AZ EL of the satellite but does not initialize but you can manually point the antenna at the satellite and acquire signal. What is the most likely problem?

31C5

The antenna creeps up and down after initialization. What action would you take?

31C6

The antenna tries to initialize then points straight up and stops. What is the most likely problem?

32C1

What action should be taken if an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband antenna continuously changes azimuth after initialization?

32C2

What condition would cause failure of an Inmarsat-C terminal to power up when AC voltage is present at the input terminals of the power supply?

32C3

What condition would cause an IP connection failure between a technician’s laptop and an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband terminal?

32C4

What condition would cause a connection failure between a technician’s laptop and an Inmarsat Fleet Broadband terminal?

32C5

Interference induced from nearby HF transmitters may cause Inmarsat system failures. What is the most appropriate action to resolve this problem?

32C6

What condition will lower the observed bit rate on a Fleet Broadband terminal?

Subelement D: Other GMDSS Equipment

Topic :

33D1

Which is not a function of a satellite under COSPAS-SARSAT using satellite EPIRBs?

33D2

What is the purpose of the magnet in the EPIRB mounting bracket?

33D3

How often must the EPIRB battery be replaced?

33D4

What feature is not a component of a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB?

33D5

How often must the automatic release mechanism be replaced.

33D6

Which of the following is normally part of 406 MHz satellite EPIRBs?

34D1

How should the signal from a Search And Rescue RADAR Transponder appear on a RADAR display?

34D2

In what frequency band does a search and rescue transponder operate?

34D3

What causes the SART to begin a transmission?

34D4

At what interval must the SART’s battery be replaced?

34D4

At what interval must the SART’s battery be replaced?

34D5

What are the characteristics of the SART transmitted signal?

34D6

What is the approximate distance between dots on a radar display at a distance of 5 miles?

35D1

How often must the Survival Craft Transceiver battery be changed?

35D2

What is the minimum receiver sensitivity required for a Survival Craft Transceiver?

35D3

What is the minimum required effective radiated power?

35D4

Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what capability?

35D5

Which statement is NOT true regarding the requirements of survival craft portable two-way VHF radiotelephone equipment?

35D6

Equipment for radiotelephony use in survival craft stations under GMDSS must have what characteristics?

36D2

The NAVTEX is powering on and appears to be functioning normally except there have been no new messages for an extended period. The station settings are correct. What is the most likely source of the problem?

36D3

How is a NAVTEX receiver programmed to reject certain messages?

36D5

How is accuracy insured in NAVTEX broadcasts?

36D6

NAVTEX broadcasts are sent:

Subelement E: Power Sources

Topic :

37E1

What is the normal voltage of a single NICAD battery cell?

37E2

What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of lead acid batteries?

37E3

What will cause an individual battery cell to reverse polarity?

37E4

What is the normal specific gravity of a fully charged lead acid battery cell? What device is used to measuring the electrolyte of a lead acid battery?

37E5

What is a gel cell battery and how is it maintained & cared for?

37E6

What is the normal voltage of a single lead acid battery cell?

38E1

How often should high charging be use with a standard lead acid battery and a fully automatic GMDSS compliant Battery charger?

38E2

What are the different modes of charging for a GMDSS compliant battery charger/supply?

38E3

What would be an indication of a malfunction on a GMDSS station with a 24 VDC battery system?

38E4

What is the meaning of “Reserve Source of Energy”?

38E5

With a fully automatic GMDSS compliant battery charger / power supply, when must the high charging process be interrupted?

38E6

A fully automatic GMDSS compliant Battery charger/ Power supply’s high (Full) charging mode must be disabled during setup for what type batteries?

39E1

Which of the following best describes a standard full wave rectifier power supply?

39E2

Which of the following statements concerning power supply filters is true?

39E3

What are the main advantages of using switcher type power supply?

39E4

What are the disadvantages of using a switcher type power supply?

39E5

Power supplies with inductive input filters have the following characteristics:

39E6

Power supplies with capacitive input filters have the following characteristics:

40E1

What is the function of a crowbar circuit?

40E2

Which of the following is not one of the main advantages of a switching power supply?

40E3

What is the configuration for a mains operated switching power supply with output regulation?

40E4

Which of the following statements about switching power supplies is the most accurate?

40E5

What are the input/output voltages of a “BUCK” switching power supply with a 50% duty cycle?

40E6

Which of the following statements about a switching mode power supply input current is correct?

Subelement F: Other Equipment and Networks

Topic :

41F1

The printer will not print a document. Which of the following is NOT a likely reason?

41F2

There is no display on the monitor. What are the most likely causes?

41F3

What are the four main functions of the “BIOS” in most computers?

41F4

Power is on but the computer will not boot into the operating system. What steps should you take?

41F5

How do you determine the type of disc drives in an XP system?

41F6

What are important considerations when replacing a CD-ROM drive?

42F1

Nodes in an Ethernet network are interconnected using a cable making a “Home Run“back to the central:

42F2

What is the maximum length of a USB 2.0 cable between two hubs or between a hub and peripheral?

42F3

10Base-T and 100Base-TX systems generally uses the following type of cable:

42F4

What initial steps should be taken when installing a router?

42F5

What are the most commonly used IP addresses for routers?

42F6

In an Ethernet network, the available bandwidth is shared between all nodes within the same:

43F1

A typical PC program that is used widely for logging and troubleshooting NMEA 0183 data is:

43F2

what is the maximum signal voltage range that an NMEA-0183 unit must be capable of handling without damage?

43F3

The current and most recent version of NMEA 0183 uses what standard for data communications?

43F4

What type of data communication is used for NMEA 0183.

43F5

Which of the following statements about an NMEA -0183 system is correct?

43F6

An important difference between NMEA 0183 and NMEA 2000 is:

44F1

The Voltage of the NMEA 2000 backbone power supply pair must be maintained to within the following range.

44F2

NMEA 2000 Certified Device identify their current requirements in terms of LENs (load Equivalent Number). 1 LEN is equal to:

44F3

Which of the following are NOT components of a NMEA 2000 network?

44F4

The NMEA 2000 backbone operating speed is:

44F5

When viewing NMEA 2000 data you must use the following. A Voltmeter

44F6

What is the maximum length for a drop cable to a single NMEA 2000 device?

45F1

What is a common range of frequencies used for depth finding equipment?

45F2

What is a common range of pulse widths used for depth finding equipment?

45F3

What is the purpose of the “carbon pile” on an older gyro compass?

45F4

What are the principles of operation of a fiber-optic gyro compass?

45F5

How does the Ship Security Alert System operate?

45F6

AIS units use the following:

46F1

What procedure must be followed before using C-Map charts for an Electronic Chart System?

46F2

Which of the following lists of data inputs for an Electronic Chart System is incorrect?

46F3

Which of the following is a necessary component of an auto pilot?

46F4

What inputs are normally required for an Auto Pilot?

46F5

Which of the following is not an accurate list of functions/data recorded by the Vessel Data Recorder?

46F6

Which of the following statements about Vessel Data Recorders is NOT true?

Subelement G: Inspections, Installations and Instruments

Topic :

47G1

What is the best method for grounding an Inmarsat-C terminal?

47G2

What is the most important consideration for installing a Full-Duplex VHF radiotelephone.

47G3

What is the most important factor when locating depth finder transducers?

47G4

Bridge equipment separation recommendations generally refer to what instrument?

47G5

When installing an Inmarsat-C antenna what should be the minimum distance to other Inmarsat antennas?

47G6

What action must be taken after an Inmarsat-C system is fully installed?

48G1

What are the operator’s license requirements for conducting a GMDSS ship station annual inspection?

48G2

What log entries are required after passing the annual inspection?

48G3

What battery tests are made during the annual inspection?

48G4

What is the easiest way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal for proper operation?

48G5

After the station has successfully passed the survey what document is issued to the vessel?

48G6

Which of the following is NOT a required VHF test during an annual inspection?

49G1

A 4 digit multi-meter with an accuracy of 0.15% and 2 counts is set on the 6 volt scale. What range of readings may be expected when measuring a 5 volt DC source?

49G2

A 4 digit multi-meter with an accuracy of 0.15% and 2 counts is set on the 60 volt scale. What range of readings may be expected when measuring a 24 volt DC source?

49G3

What is the most important specification for an R. F. Signal Generator used at VHF frequencies?

49G4

A good lab type signal generator for VHF measurements should be able to reduce its output to:

49G5

The characteristics of a 10:1 attenuation probe for an oscilloscope is as follows:

49G6

In dual-trace oscilloscopes the purpose of the “Mode” control is to:

50G1

What type of signals are usually provided by a simple Function Generator?

50G2

a SINAD meter consists of a multi-range audio frequency voltmeter:

50G3

Which of the following statements about a logic probe is false?

50G4

An analog RF wattmeter provides the most accurate reading:

50G5

What is the purpose of a deviation meter?

50G6

What would be the most likely reason to observe the transmitter output with a spectrum analyzer?